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Chapter 4 Test — The 11-Step ECG Method
17 questions · 17 min · +4 / -1
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Question 1
Question 1
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A 62-year-old woman on a cardiac monitor sets off a "ventricular tachycardia" alarm. She is alert, talking comfortably, and her radial pulse is 90/min and regular. The recording obtained (25 mm/sec, 10 mm/mV) is shown. Leads I and III show chaotic, large-amplitude baseline deflections, while lead II shows narrow, regular QRS complexes throughout.
What is the correct interpretation?
A.
Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response — start rate control
B.
Ventricular tachycardia — deliver an immediate synchronised DC shock
C.
Motion artifact — the underlying rhythm is normal; check the electrodes and repeat the ECG
D.
Ventricular fibrillation — start CPR and defibrillate
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Question 2
Question 2
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A resident reports "left ventricular hypertrophy by Sokolow-Lyon criteria" on the routine ECG of an asymptomatic 24-year-old athlete. On checking the recording, the calibration pulse at the start of each lead measures 20 mm tall.
What is the correct next step?
A.
Recognise that the gain is set at 20 mm/mV and repeat the ECG at the standard 10 mm/mV
B.
Halve the paper speed to 12.5 mm/sec and re-measure the complexes
C.
Accept the tracing, since gain settings do not affect voltage-based criteria
D.
Report the left ventricular hypertrophy and arrange an urgent echocardiogram
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Question 3
Question 3
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On a regular rhythm strip recorded at the standard paper speed of 25 mm/sec, the interval between two consecutive R waves measures exactly four large boxes.
Using the 300 rule, the ventricular rate is:
A.
100 bpm
B.
75 bpm
C.
60 bpm
D.
150 bpm
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Question 4
Question 4
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The figure shows how the 1500 method is used to calculate heart rate from a strip recorded at 25 mm/sec.
Applying the same method to a regular rhythm in which the R-R interval measures 6 small boxes, the heart rate is:
A.
150 bpm
B.
300 bpm
C.
200 bpm
D.
250 bpm
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Question 5
Question 5
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A 76-year-old man has an irregularly irregular pulse. His ECG shows a fibrillatory baseline with no discernible P waves and widely varying R-R intervals. A house officer measures the gap between two adjacent R waves as two large boxes and reports the ventricular rate as 150/min.
What is the correct way to determine the rate in this patient?
A.
Divide 60 by the average P-P interval in seconds
B.
The 1500 method, using the longest R-R interval on the strip
C.
The 300 rule, using the shortest R-R interval on the strip
D.
Count the QRS complexes in 30 large boxes (6 seconds) and multiply by 10
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Question 6
Question 6
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Step 3 of the 11-step method requires all five criteria for normal sinus rhythm to be satisfied.
Which of the following correctly states the required P wave polarity?
A.
P waves upright in both lead II and aVR
B.
P waves upright in lead II and inverted in aVR
C.
P waves upright in aVR and inverted in lead II
D.
P waves inverted in both lead II and aVR
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Question 7
Question 7
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The PR interval on a routine ECG measures 0.21 seconds. Every P wave is followed by a QRS complex and the PR interval is constant.
What is the correct interpretation?
A.
Second-degree heart block
B.
First-degree AV block
C.
Normal PR interval
D.
Complete heart block
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Question 8
Question 8
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A short QTc interval (<340 ms) on an ECG should most strongly suggest which of the following?
A.
Hypocalcaemia
B.
Hypokalaemia
C.
Hypercalcaemia
D.
Hyperkalaemia
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Question 9
Question 9
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A mean frontal QRS axis of −30° to −90° indicates:
A.
Left axis deviation
B.
Right axis deviation
C.
Extreme (northwest) axis
D.
Normal cardiac axis
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Question 10
Question 10
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A 68-year-old man with a previous myocardial infarction presents with a regular tachycardia at 170/min. The QRS complex is negative in lead I and negative in aVF.
What is the axis, and what should it make you think of first?
A.
Extreme (northwest) axis — ventricular tachycardia
B.
Normal axis — sinus tachycardia
C.
Left axis deviation — left anterior fascicular block
D.
Right axis deviation — pulmonary embolism
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Question 11
Question 11
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A 70-year-old man with a previous anterior myocardial infarction arrives in the emergency department with a regular tachycardia at 165/min and a QRS duration of 150 ms. His blood pressure is 82/50 mmHg and his peripheries are cold and clammy.
What is the most appropriate management?
A.
Observe on telemetry and repeat the ECG in one hour
B.
Give IV adenosine to unmask atrial flutter before deciding on treatment
C.
Treat as ventricular tachycardia and perform immediate synchronised DC cardioversion
D.
Give IV verapamil, assuming supraventricular tachycardia with aberrant conduction
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Question 12
Question 12
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The middle panel of the figure shows the precordial pattern in which the R wave fails to grow in height across V1 to V3.
In a patient with chest pain and Q waves in V1–V4, what does this pattern most importantly suggest?
A.
Posterior myocardial infarction
B.
Right ventricular hypertrophy
C.
Anterior myocardial infarction
D.
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
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Question 13
Question 13
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The figure shows how ST-segment deviation is measured on a tracing recorded at standard calibration (10 mm/mV).
From which point is ST elevation measured, and what does the left panel demonstrate?
A.
From the J point, relative to the isoelectric baseline; the panel shows 4 mm (0.4 mV) of ST elevation
B.
From the peak of the R wave, relative to the isoelectric baseline; the panel shows 4 mm of elevation
C.
From the end of the T wave, relative to the TP segment; the panel shows 4 mm of ST depression
D.
From the onset of the P wave, relative to the PR segment; the panel shows 0.4 mV of ST depression
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Question 14
Question 14
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A 35-year-old man presents with one hour of crushing chest pain. His ECG shows 2 mm of ST elevation confined to leads V2 and V3, with no reciprocal changes elsewhere.
Applying the ACC/AHA ST-elevation criteria used in this chapter, this degree of elevation:
A.
Meets the STEMI threshold, because ≥1 mm in two contiguous leads always suffices
B.
Does not reach the V2–V3 threshold for a man under 40 years, which is ≥2.5 mm
C.
Would meet the threshold only if the patient were a man aged 40 years or over, for whom the cut-off is ≥2.5 mm
D.
Does not reach the V2–V3 threshold, which is ≥1.5 mm in men under 40 years
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Question 15
Question 15
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A 28-year-old man presents with sharp central chest pain that is worse on lying flat. His ECG shows widespread concave ST-segment elevation with PR-segment depression in most leads, sparing aVR, and no reciprocal ST depression in any territory.
These findings favour which diagnosis?
A.
Acute myocardial infarction
B.
Acute pericarditis
C.
Digoxin effect
D.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
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Question 16
Question 16
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A 54-year-old smoker had severe central chest pain three hours ago, which has now completely resolved. He is currently pain-free and his troponin is normal. His ECG, recorded in the pain-free state, shows the biphasic T-wave morphology illustrated in the figure in leads V2 and V3, with no ST elevation.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A.
Discharge with outpatient follow-up, as he is pain-free with a normal troponin
B.
Treat as gastro-oesophageal reflux and start a proton pump inhibitor
C.
Arrange an exercise stress test before discharge
D.
Admit and refer urgently for coronary angiography
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Question 17
Question 17
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Step 11 requires every ECG interpretation to end with a structured report.
Which set correctly lists the five components a professional ECG report must include?
A.
Calibration; rate; rhythm; axis; troponin level
B.
Rate; rhythm; P wave; Q wave; T wave
C.
Rhythm; intervals; axis; ST-T findings; echocardiogram result
D.
Rate; rhythm; intervals; axis and morphology; ST-T findings
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